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Q61. Refer to the exhibit. 

If the downstream router has a summary route configured, which two actions must you take on the local router to create the summary route that summarizes all routes from the downstream router? (Choose two.) 

A. Configure the summary address on the interface. 

B. Use 10.0.0.0 255.248.0.0 as the summary route. 

C. Configure the summary address in the EIGRP process. 

D. Use 10.0.0.0 255.252.0.0 as the summary route. 

E. Configure a route map to permit the route. 

F. Configure a distribute list in. 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

Route summarization works in conjunction with the ip summary-address eigrp interface configuration command, in which additional summarization can be performed. To correctly summarize all the networks shown, the correct route to use is 10.0.0.0 255.248.0.0 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/ip/configuration/guide/fipr_c/1cfeigrp.html 


Q62. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which two statements about the output are true? (Choose two.) 

A. 802.1D spanning tree is being used. 

B. Setting the priority of this switch to 0 for VLAN 1 would cause it to become the new root. 

C. The hello, max-age, and forward delay timers are not set to their default values. 

D. Spanning-tree PortFast is enabled on GigabitEthernet1/1. 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

802.1D is the standard for Spanning tree, which is being used here. For priority, The priority order starts from 0 (yes, 0 is valid) and then increases in 4096. 0, 4096, 8192, 12288, …. Etc. 

The lower the number is, the higher is the priority. Here we see that the current root has a priority of 8192, so configuring this with a priority of 0 will make it the new root. 


Q63. Which three modes are valid PfR monitoring modes of operation? (Choose three.) 

A. route monitor mode (based on BGP route changes) 

B. RMON mode (based on RMONv1 and RMONv2 data) 

C. passive mode (based on NetFlow data) 

D. active mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes) 

E. fast mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes) 

F. passive mode (based on Cisco IP SLA probes) 

Answer: C,D,E 

Explanation: 

Modes are: 

Mode monitor passive 

Passive monitoring is the act of PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by Netflow. Passive monitoring is typically only recommended in Internet edge deployments because active probing is ineffective because of security policies that block probing. PfR, when enabled, automatically enables Netflow on the managed interfaces on the Border Routers. By aggregating this information on the Border Routers and periodically reporting the collected data to the Master Controller, the network prefixes and applications in use can automatically be learned. 

Mode monitor active 

Active monitoring is the act of generating Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements (SLAs) probes to generate test traffic for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links. PfR can either implicitly generates active probes when passive monitoring has identified destination hosts, or the network manager can explicitly configured probes in the PfR configuration. When jitter probes are used (common use case), Target Discovery is used to learn the respond address and to automatically generate the probes. 

Mode monitor Fast 

This mode generates active probes through all exists continuously at the configured probe frequency. This differs from either active or both modes in that these modes only generate probes through alternate paths (exits) in the event the current path is out-of-policy. 

Reference: http://docwiki.cisco.com/wiki/PfR:Technology_Overview#Mode_monitor_passive 


Q64. Which three statements about RIP timers are true? (Choose three.) 

A. The default update timer is 30 seconds. 

B. The default invalid timer is 180 seconds. 

C. The default holddown timer is 180 seconds. 

D. The default flush timer is 60 seconds. 

E. The default scan timer is 60 seconds. 

F. The default hello timer is 5 seconds. 

Answer: A,B,C 

Explanation: 

The routing information protocol uses the following timers as part of its operation: 

Update Timer 

Invalid Timer 

Flush Timer 

Holddown Timer 

Update Timer 

The update timer controls the interval between two gratuitous Response Message. By default the value is 30 seconds. The response message is broadcast to all its RIP enabled interface. 

Invalid Timer 

The invalid timer specifies how long a routing entry can be in the routing table without being updated. This is also called as expiration Timer. By default, the value is 180 seconds. After the timer expires the hop count of the routing entry will be set to 16, marking the destination as unreachable. 

Flush Timer 

The flush timer controls the time between the route is invalidated or marked as unreachable and removal of entry from the routing table. By default the value is 240 seconds. This is 60 seconds longer than Invalid timer. So for 60 seconds the router will be advertising about this unreachable route to all its neighbors. This timer must be set to a higher value than the invalid timer. 

Hold-down Timer 

The hold-down timer is started per route entry, when the hop count is changing from lower value to higher value. This allows the route to get stabilized. During this time no update can be done to that routing entry. This is not part of the RFC 1058. This is Cisco's implementation. The default value of this timer is 180 seconds. 

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Routing_Information_Protocol#Timers 


Q65. Which three factors does Cisco PfR use to calculate the best exit path? (Choose three.) 

A. quality of service 

B. packet size 

C. delay 

D. loss 

E. reachability 

F. administrative distance 

Answer: C,D,E 

Explanation: 

Cisco PfR selects an egress or ingress WAN path based on parameters that affect application performance, including reachability, delay, cost, jitter, and Mean Opinion Score (MOS). 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/performance-routing-pfr/product_data_sheet0900aecd806c4ee4.html 


Q66. Which three options are sub-subfields of the IPv4 Option Type subfield? (Choose three.) 

A. Option Class 

B. GET 

C. Copied 

D. PUSH 

E. Option Number 

F. TTL 

Answer: A,C,E 

Explanation: 

Each IP option has its own subfield format, generally structured as shown below. For most options, all three subfields are used. Option Type, Option Length and Option Data. 

Reference: http://www.tcpipguide.com/free/t_IPDatagramOptionsandOptionFormat.htm 


Q67. Refer to the exhibit. 

R3 prefers the path through R1 to reach host 10.1.1.1. 

Which option describes the reason for this behavior? 

A. The OSPF reference bandwidth is too small to account for the higher speed links through R2. 

B. The default OSPF cost through R1 is less than the cost through R2. 

C. The default OSPF cost through R1 is more than the cost through R2. 

D. The link between R2 and R1 is congested. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The default formula to calculate OSPF bandwidth is BW = Bandwidth Reference / interface 

bandwidth [bps] = 10^8 / / interface bandwidth [bps] 

BW of the R1-R3 link = 10^8 / 100Mbps = 10^8 / 10^8 = 1 

BW of the R2-R3 link = 10^8 / 1Gbps = 10^8 / 10^9 = 1 (round up) 

Therefore OSPF considers the two above links have the same Bandwidth -> R3 will go to 10.1.1.1 via the R1-R3 link. The solution here is to increase the Bandwidth Reference to a higher value using the “auto-cost reference-bandwidth” command under OSPF router mode. For example: Router(config)#router ospf 1 Router(config-router)#auto-cost reference-bandwidth 10000 This will increase the reference bandwidth to 10000 Mbps which increases the BW of the R2-R3 link to 10^10 / 10^8 = 100. 


Q68. Which configuration sets a minimum quality of service on a Layer 2 access switch? 

A. mls qos cos override 

mls qos cos 2 

B. mls qos cos 2 

C. mls qos trust cos 

mls qos cos 2 

D. mls qos trust cos 

E. mls qos trust dscp 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The mls qos cos override interface command must be used to ensure that untrusted CoS values are explicitly set 0 (default). 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/QoS_SRND/Qo S-SRND-Book/QoSDesign.html 


Q69. Which two options are requirements for Control-Plane Policing? (Choose two.) 

A. Cisco Express Forwarding must be enabled globally. 

B. Cisco Discovery Protocol must be disabled in the control plane. 

C. A crypto policy must be installed. 

D. A loopback address must be configured for device access. 

E. A class map must be configured to identify traffic. 

Answer: A,E 


Q70. Refer to the exhibit. 

The spokes of the DMVPN with the given configuration are having QoS issues. 

Which two actions can you take to resolve the problem? (Choose two.) 

A. Configure qos pre-classify on the tunnel interface. 

B. Configure an NHRP group on the tunnel interface and associate it to a QoS policy. 

C. Modify the configuration of the IPsec policy to accept QoS policies. 

D. Manually configure a QoS policy on the serial interface. 

E. Configure the bandwidth statement on the tunnel interface. 

F. Configure the bandwidth statement on the serial interface. 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

It is possible to classify based on information that is encrypted, which is needed in this example. You can use an access-list, configured to match the private subnet behind the remote spoke. The qos pre-classify command is used on the tunnel interface, and is required because the traffic is classified by a parameter that is encrypted as the traffic leaves the physical outbound interface. L4 information from the IP data packet can also classify traffic destined to the same private subnet. The “nhrp map group group-name service-policy output parent-policy-name” command adds the NHRP group to the QoS policy map on the hub.