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Q431. Which three types of traffic are allowed by IEEE 802.1X access control prior to getting authenticated? (Choose three.) 

A. EAPOL 

B. VTP 

C. STP 

D. ARP 

E. CDP 

F. HTTP 

Answer: A,C,E 

Explanation: 

Until the client is authenticated, IEEE 802.1x access control allows only Extensible Authentication Protocol over LAN (EAPOL), Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP), and Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) traffic through the port to which the client is connected. After authentication, normal traffic passes through the port. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3750/software/release/15-0_2_se/configuration/guide/scg3750/sw8021x.pdf 


Q432. Which statement about the feasible distance in EIGRP is true? 

A. It is the maximum metric that should feasibly be considered for installation in the RIB. 

B. It is the minimum metric to reach the destination as stored in the topology table. 

C. It is the metric that is supplied by the best next hop toward the destination. 

D. It is the maximum metric possible based on the maximum hop count that is allowed. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

An EIGRP router advertises each destination it can reach as a route with an attached metric. This metric is called the route's reported distance (the term advertised distance has also been used in older documentation). A successor route for any given destination is chosen as having the lowest computed feasible distance; that is, the lowest sum of reported distance plus the cost to get to the advertising router. By default, an EIGRP router will store only the route with the best (lowest) feasible distance in the routing table (or, multiple routes with equivalent feasible distances). 

Reference: http://packetlife.net/blog/2010/aug/9/eigrp-feasible-successor-routes/ 


Q433. Refer to the exhibit. 

Why is the OSPF state in 2WAY/DROTHER? 

A. This is the expected output when the interface Ethernet0/0 of R1 is configured with OSPF Priority 0. 

B. There is a duplicate router ID. 

C. There is an MTU mismatch. 

D. There is an OSPF timer (hello/dead) mismatch. 

E. This is the expected output when R1 is the DR. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Sometimes it is desirable for a router to be configured so that it is not eligible to become the DR or BDR. You can do this by setting the OSPF priority to zero with the ip ospf priority priority# interface subcommand. If two OSPF neighbors both have their OSPF interface priority set to zero, they establish two-way adjacency instead of full adjacency. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13683-11.html 


Q434. Which statement describes the effect of the configuration line redistribute maximum-prefix 1500 90 withdraw? 

A. After the 1500th route is redistributed, a warning is posted in the log file and 90 more routes are redistributed before further routes are discarded. 

B. After the 1350th route is redistributed, a warning is posted in the log file until the 1500th route is redistributed, and then further routes are discarded. 

C. After the 1500th route is redistributed, further routes are discarded only if the CPU is above 90%. 

D. The routing protocol receives 1500 routes. After the routing process has redistributed 90% of the routes, the process supernets routes and injects a NULL route to prevent black-hole routing. 

Answer:


Q435. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which two statements are true about the displayed STP state? (Choose two.) 

A. The STP version configured on the switch is IEEE 802.1w. 

B. Port-channel 1 is flapping and the last flap occurred 1 minute and 17 seconds ago. 

C. The switch does not have PortFast configured on Gi0/15. 

D. BPDUs with the TCN bit set are transmitted over port channel 1. 

Answer: C,D 

Explanation: 

A port enabled with portfast will not send topology changes when a port goes up or down, but here we see that 296 TCN’s were sent so we know that Gi 0/15 does not have portfast enabled. 

TCN’s are sent using BPDU’s over the root port, which we see is port channel 1. 


Q436. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which two commands are required on R3 in order for MPLS to function? (Choose two.) 

A. mpls ip 

B. ip cef 

C. mpls label protocol tdp 

D. mpls ip propagate-ttl 

Answer: A,B 


Q437. Which technology facilitates neighbor IP address resolution in DMVPN? 

A. CEF 

B. mGRE 

C. a dynamic routing protocol 

D. NHRP 

Answer:

Explanation: 

NHRP Used with a DMVPN 

NHRP is used to facilitate building a VPN and provides address resolution in DMVPN. In this context, a VPN consists of a virtual Layer 3 network that is built on top of an actual Layer 3 network. The topology you use over the VPN is largely independent of the underlying network, and the protocols you run over it are completely independent of it. The VPN network (DMVPN) is based on GRE IP logical tunnels that can be protected by adding in IPsec to encrypt the GRE IP tunnels. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_4/ip_addr/configuration/guide/hadnhrp.html#w p1057255 


Q438. Which TCP mechanism prevents the sender from sending data too quickly for the receiver to process? 

A. Congestion control 

B. Error detection 

C. Selective acknowledgement 

D. Flow control 

Answer:

Explanation: 

In data communications, flow control is the process of managing the rate of data transmission between two nodes to prevent a fast sender from overwhelming a slow receiver. It provides a mechanism for the receiver to control the transmission speed, so that the receiving node is not overwhelmed with data from transmitting node. 

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flow_control_(data) 


Q439. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which configuration reduces CPU utilization on R2 while still advertising the connected routes of R2 to R1? 

A. Configure eigrp stub connected on R2. 

B. Configure eigrp stub receive-only on R1. 

C. Configure eigrp stub static on R2. 

D. Configure eigrp stub summary on R1. 

Answer:


Q440. Consider a network that mixes link bandwidths from 128 kb/s to 40 Gb/s. Which value should be set for the OSPF reference bandwidth? 

A. Set a value of 128. 

B. Set a value of 40000. 

C. Set a manual OSPF cost on each interface. 

D. Use the default value. 

E. Set a value of 40000000. 

F. Set a value of 65535. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Unlike the metric in RIP which is determined by hop count and EIGRP’s crazy mathematical formulated metric, OSPF is a little more simple. The default formula to calculate the cost for the OSPF metric is (10^8/BW). By default the metrics reference cost is 100Mbps, so any link that is 100Mbps will have a metric of 1. a T1 interface will have a metric of 64 so in this case if a router is trying to get to a FastEthernet network on a router that is through a T1 the metric would be 65 (64 +1). You do however have the ability to statically specify a metric on a per interface basis by using the ip ospf cost # where the cost is an integer between 1-65535. 

So the big question is why would you want to statically configure a metric? The biggest advantage of statically configuring an OSPF metric on an interface is to manipulate which route will be chosen dynamically via OSPF. In a nut shell it’s like statically configuring a dynamic protocol to use a specific route. It should also be used when the interface bandwidths vary greatly (some very low bandwidth interfaces and some very high speed interfaces on the same router).