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Q251. Which EIGRP packet types are sent as unicast packets? 

A. hello, update, query 

B. query, SIA query, reply 

C. SIA query, reply, ACK 

D. query, SIA query, SIA reply 

Answer:


Q252. In a PfR environment, which two statements best describe the difference between active mode monitoring and fast mode monitoring? (Choose two.) 

A. Active mode monitoring can monitor and measure actual traffic via NetFlow data collection. 

B. Fast mode monitoring can measure bursty traffic better than active mode. 

C. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for the purpose of obtaining performance characteristics of the current WAN exit link. 

D. Fast mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes via all valid exits continuously to quickly determine an alternate exit link. 

Answer: C,D 

Explanation: 

Active Monitoring 

PfR uses Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements (SLAs) to enable active monitoring. IP SLAs support is enabled by default. IP SLAs support allows PfR to be configured to send active probes to target IP addresses to measure the jitter and delay, determining if a prefix is out-of-policy and if the best exit is selected. The border router collects these performance statistics from the active probe and transmits this information to the master controller. 

Fast Failover Monitoring 

Fast failover monitoring enables passive and active monitoring and sets the active probes to continuously monitor all the exits (probe-all). Fast failover monitoring can be used with all types of active probes: Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo, jitter, TCP connection, and UDP echo. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/pfr/command/pfr-cr-book/pfr-s1.html 


Q253. Which implementation can cause packet loss when the network includes asymmetric routing paths? 

A. the use of ECMP routing 

B. the use of penultimate hop popping 

C. the use of Unicast RPF 

D. disabling Cisco Express Forwarding 

Answer:

Explanation: 

When administrators use Unicast RPF in strict mode, the packet must be received on the interface that the router would use to forward the return packet. Unicast RPF configured in strict mode may drop legitimate traffic that is received on an interface that was not the router's choice for sending return traffic. Dropping this legitimate traffic could occur when asymmetric routing paths are present in the network. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/web/about/security/intelligence/unicast-rpf.html 


Q254. Refer to the exhibit. 

You must complete the configuration on R1 so that a maximum of three links can be used and fragmentation is supported. 

Which additional configuration accomplishes this task? 

A. interface Multilink19 

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 

ppp multilink 

ppp multilink group 19 

ppp multilink links minimum 1 

ppp multilink links maximum 3 

ppp multilink interleave 

B. interface Multilink19 

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 

ppp multilink 

ppp multilink group 19 

ppp multilink links maximum 3 

ppp multilink fragment delay 20 

C. interface Multilink19 

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 

ppp multilink 

ppp multilink group 19 

ppp multilink links maximum 3 

ppp multilink fragment delay 20 

ppp multilink interleave 

D. interface Multilink19 

ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252 

ppp multilink 

ppp multilink group 19 

ppp multilink links maximum 3 

ppp multilink interleave 

Answer:

Explanation: 

The “ppp multilink interleave” command is needed to enable link fragmentation and Interleaving (LFI). The Cisco IOS Link Fragmentation and Interleaving (LFI) feature uses Multilink PPP (MLP). MLP provides a method of splitting, recombining, and sequencing datagrams across multiple logical data links. MLP allows packets to be fragmented and the fragments to be sent at the same time over multiple point-to-point links to the same remote address. 

ppp multilink links maximum 

To limit the maximum number of links that Multilink PPP (MLP) can dial for dynamic allocation, use the ppp multilink links maximum command in interface configuration mode. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/qos/configuration/guide/fqos_c/qcflfi.html 


Q255. Which two values comprise the VPN ID for an MPLS VPN? (Choose two.) 

A. an OUI 

B. a VPN index 

C. a route distinguisher 

D. a 16-bit AS number 

E. a 32-bit IP address 

Answer: A,B 

Explanation: 

Each MPLS VPN ID defined by RFC 2685 consists of the following elements: 

. An Organizational Unique Identifier (OUI), a three-octet hex number: The IEEE Registration Authority assigns OUIs to any company that manufactures 

components under the ISO/IEC 8802 standard. The OUI is used to generate universal LAN MAC addresses and protocol identifiers for use in local and metropolitan area network applications. For example, an OUI for Cisco Systems is 00-03-6B (hex). 

. A Virtual Private Network (VPN) index: a four-octet hex number, which identifies the VPN within the company. 

Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l3_vpns/configuration/15-mt/mp-l3-vpns-15-mt-book/mp-assgn-id-vpn.html 


Q256. Refer to the exhibit. 

Which statement is true about why the first-hop PIM IPv6 router is stuck in registering? 

A. The scope of the IPv6 multicast address is link-local. 

B. The outgoing interface for the IPv6 multicast group should not be a tunnel interface. 

C. The R-bit is set in the IPv6 address, but this is not an embedded RP multicast IPv6 address. 

D. The S flag should not be set on a first-hop PIM router. 

E. A multicast IPv6 address does not start with FF. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

.R bit: RP bit: R = 1 indicates the address embeds the address of the Rendezvous Point (RP). The embedded RP address needs to begin with the prefix FF70::/12, But here we see that the address is FF7E::1234. 


Q257. Refer to the exhibit. 

Routers R1 and R2 are configured as shown, and traffic from R1 fails to reach host 209.165.201.254. 

Which action can you take to correct the problem? 

A. Ensure that R2 has a default route in its routing table. 

B. Change the OSPF area type on R1 and R2. 

C. Edit the router configurations so that address 209.165.201.254 is a routable address. 

D. Remove the default-information originate command from the OSPF configuration of R2. 

Answer:

Explanation: 

Not sure that any of these answers are correct, it appears that this configuration is valid for reaching that one specific host IP. Answer A does have a route to that host so it would not need a default route to get to it. Choice B is incorrect as the area types have nothing to do with this. C is incorrect as that IP address is routable, and D is needed so that R1 will have a default route advertised to it from R2 so that it can reach this destination. 


Q258. Which EEM event detector is triggered by hardware installation or removal? 

A. Enhanced-Object-Tracking Event Detector 

B. Resource Event Detector 

C. OIR Event Detector 

D. CLI Event Detector 

Answer:


Q259. Which two statements about the passive-interface command are true? (Choose two.) 

A. A RIP router listens to multicast updates from its neighbor but stops sending multicast updates on the passive interface. 

B. In OSPF, configuring passive-interface at the interface level suppresses hello packets for the interface and all sub interfaces. 

C. An EIGRP router can form neighbor relationship on the passive interface, but incoming and outgoing multicast updates are disabled on the interface. 

D. A RIP router disables all incoming and outgoing multicast updates in the passive interface. 

E. In EIGRP, the passive interface stops sending hello packets. 

F. In OSPF, the passive interface can receive incoming routing updates and update the device routing table. 

Answer: A,E 


Q260. In the DiffServ model, which class represents the highest priority with the lowest drop probability? 

A. AF11 

B. AF13 

C. AF41 

D. AF43 

Answer: