Our pass rate is high to 98.9% and the similarity percentage between our ccie 400 101 dumps study guide and real exam is 90% based on our seven-year educating experience. Do you want achievements in the Cisco passleader 400 101 exam in just one try? I am currently studying for the Cisco ccie 400 101 exam. Latest Cisco 400 101 pdf Test exam practice questions and answers, Try Cisco 400 101 ccie Brain Dumps First.
Q461. Which three options are sources from which a SPAN session can copy traffic? (Choose three.)
E. primary IP addresses
F. secondary IP addresses
. SPAN Sources
The interfaces from which traffic can be monitored are called SPAN sources. Sources designate the traffic to monitor and whether to copy ingress, egress, or both directions of traffic. SPAN sources include the following:
. Ethernet ports
. Port channels
. The inband interface to the control plane CPU — You can monitor the inband interface only from the default VDC. Inband traffic from all VDCs is monitored.
. VLANs — When a VLAN is specified as a SPAN source, all supported interfaces in the VLAN are SPAN sources.
. Remote SPAN (RSPAN) VLANs
. Fabric port channels connected to the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender .
Satellite ports and host interface port channels on the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender
— These interfaces are supported in Layer 2 access mode, Layer 2 trunk mode, and Layer 3 mode.
Q462. In a nonbackbone OSPF area, all traffic that is destined to the Internet is routed by using a default route that is originated by the ABR. Which change in the configuration of the OSPF area type causes traffic from that area that is destined to the Internet to be dropped?
A. The OSPF area changes from NSSA to totally stubby area.
B. The OSPF area changes from NSSA to regular area.
C. The OSPF area changes from stub area to totally stubby area.
D. The OSPF area changes from stub area to NSSA.
The ABR for the NSSA generates the default route, but not by default. To force the ABR to generate the default route, use the area <area id> nssa default-information originate command. The ABR generates a Type 7 LSA with the link-state ID 0.0.0.0 and is advertised inside the NSSA. This default route will be propagated inside the NSSA as Type 7 LSA
Q463. Under Cisco IOS Software, which two features are supported in RADIUS Change of Authorization requests? (Choose two.)
A. session identification
B. session reauthentication
C. session termination
D. host termination
CoA requests, as described in RFC 5176, are used in a pushed model to allow for session identification, host reauthentication, and session termination. The model comprises one request (CoA-Request) and two possible response codes.
Q464. What happens when an interface is configured as passive in OSPF?
A. No OSPF neighbor ship is formed on the interface.
B. An OSPF neighbor ship is formed with the DR, but not with the BDR.
C. The subnet configured on the interface is not advertised to any other neighbor.
D. OSPF hello messages are sent as unicast instead of multicast.
Q465. Which statement about how a CE router is used in an MPLS VPN is true?
A. It is located on the customer premises, where it peers and exchanges routes with the provider edge router.
B. It is located on the provider premises, where it peers and exchanges routes with the customer edge router.
C. It is located on the customer premises, but it is fully controlled by the provider, which provides a full routing table to the customer.
D. It is located on the provider premises, and it routes only MPLS label traffic.
Q466. Refer to the exhibit.
Which type of BGP peer is 192.168.1.1?
A. route reflector client
Q467. Which statement about the overload bit in IS-IS is true?
A. The IS-IS adjacencies on the links for which the overload bit is set are brought down.
B. Routers running SPF ignore LSPs with the overload bit set and hence avoid blackholing traffic.
C. A router setting the overload bit becomes unreachable to all other routers in the IS-IS area.
D. The overload bit in IS-IS is used only for external prefixes.
The OL bit is used to prevent unintentional blackholing of packets in BGP transit networks. Due to the nature of these protocols, IS-IS and OSPF converge must faster than BGP. Thus there is a possibility that while the IGP has converged, IBGP is still learning the routes. In that case if other IBGP routers start sending traffic towards this IBGP router that has not yet completely converged it will start dropping traffic. This is because it isnt yet aware of the complete BGP routes. OL bit comes handy in such situations. When a new IBGP neighbor is added or a router restarts, the IS-IS OL bit is set. Since directly connected (including loopbacks) addresses on an “overloaded” router are considered by other routers, IBGP can be bought up and can begin exchanging routes. Other routers will not use this router for transit traffic and will route the packets out through an alternate path. Once BGP has converged, the OL bit is cleared and this router can begin forwarding transit traffic.
Q468. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements about the EEM applet configuration are true? (Choose two.)
A. The EEM applet runs before the CLI command is executed.
B. The EEM applet runs after the CLI command is executed.
C. The EEM applet requires a case-insensitive response.
D. The running configuration is displayed only if the letter Y is entered at the CLI.
sync Indicates whether the policy should be executed synchronously before the CLI command executes.
. If the yes keyword is specified, the policy will run synchronously with the CLI command.
. If the no keyword is specified, the policy will run asynchronously with the CLI command.
(Optional) Specifies case insensitive comparison.
Here we see that the sync knob was enabled so A is correct. However, C is not correct as the nocase argument was not used, so the applet is configured to display the config only if a capital Y is issued.
Q469. Which statement is true regarding UDLD and STP timers?
A. The UDLD message timer should be two times the STP forward delay to prevent loops.
B. UDLD and STP are unrelated features, and there is no relation between the timers.
C. The timers need to be synced by using the spanning-tree udld-sync command.
D. The timers should be set in such a way that UDLD is detected before the STP forward delay expires.
UDLD is designed to be a helper for STP. Therefore, UDLD should be able to detect an unidirectional link before STP would unblock the port due to missed BPDUs. Thus, when you configure UDLD timers, make sure your values are set so that unidirectional link is detected before “STP MaxAge + 2xForwardDelay” expires.
Q470. Refer to the exhibit.
What is wrong with the configuration of this tunnel interface?
A. ISATAP tunnels cannot use the EUI-64 address format.
B. No tunnel destination has been specified.
C. The tunnel source of an ISATAP tunnel must always point to a loopback interface.
D. Router advertisements are disabled on this tunnel interface.
Sending of IPv6 router advertisements is disabled by default on tunnel interfaces. This command reenables the sending of IPv6 router advertisements to allow client autoconfiguration:
Example: Router(config-if)# no ipv6 nd ra suppress