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2017 Apr 400-101 practice test

Q311. Which two statements best describes the difference between active mode monitoring and passive mode monitoring? (Choose two.) 

A. Active mode monitoring is the act of Cisco PfR gathering information on user packets assembled into flows by NetFlow. 

B. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for obtaining performance characteristics of the current exit WAN link. 

C. Passive mode monitoring uses IP SLA to generate probes for the purpose of obtaining information regarding the characteristics of the WAN links. 

D. Passive mode monitoring uses NetFlow for obtaining performance characteristics of the exit WAN links. 

Answer: B,D 

Q312. Where is multicast traffic sent, when it is originated from a spoke site in a DMVPN phase 2 cloud? 

A. spoke-spoke 

B. nowhere, because multicast does not work over DMVPN 

C. spoke-spoke and spoke-hub 

D. spoke-hub 



Spokes map multicasts to the static NBMA IP address of the hub, but hub maps multicast packets to the “dynamic” mappings – that is, the hub replicates multicast packets to all spokes registered via NHRP, so multicast traffic is sent to the hub from a spoke instead of to the other spokes directly. 

Q313. Which two protocols are not protected in an edge router by using control plane policing? (Choose two.) 




D. Telnet 

Answer: A,B 


A CoPP policy can limit a number of different packet types that are forwarded to the control plane. Traffic destined for the switch CPU includes: 

. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) 

. First-hop redundancy protocol packets 

. Layer 2 control packets 

. Management packets (telnet, Secure Shell [SSH] Protocol, Simple Network Management Protocol [SNMP]) <--- C and D are not correct. 

. Multicast control packets 

. Routing protocol packets 

. Packets with IP options 

. Packets with time to live (TTL) set to 1 

. Packets that require ACL logging 

. Packets that require an initial lookup (first packet in a flow: FIB miss) 

. Packets that have don't support hardware switching/routing 


Q314. Refer to the exhibit. 

While troubleshooting high CPU utilization of a Cisco Catalyst 4500 Series Switch, you notice the error message that is shown in the exhibit in the log file. 

What can be the cause of this issue, and how can it be prevented? 

A. The hardware routing table is full. Redistribute from BGP into IGP. 

B. The software routing table is full. Redistribute from BGP into IGP. 

C. The hardware routing table is full. Reduce the number of routes in the routing table. 

D. The software routing table is full. Reduce the number of routes in the routing table. 




Error MessageC4K_L3HWFORWARDING-2-FWDCAMFULL:L3 routing table is full. 

Switching to software forwarding. 

The hardware routing table is full; forwarding takes place in the software instead. The switch performance might be degraded. 

Recommended Action: Reduce the size of the routing table. Enter the ip cef command to return to hardware forwarding. 


Q315. Which three address family types does EIGRP support? (Choose three.) 

A. IPv4 unicast 

B. IPv4 multicast 

C. IPv6 unicast 

D. IPv6 multicast 

E. IPv4 anycast 

F. IPv6 anycast 

Answer: A,B,C 

Most recent 400-101 practice question:

Q316. With which ISs will an IS-IS Level 1 IS exchange routing information? 

A. Level 1 ISs 

B. Level 1 ISs in the same area 

C. Level 1 and Level 2 ISs 

D. Level 2 ISs 



IS-IS differs from OSPF in the way that "areas" are defined and routed between. IS-IS routers are designated as being: Level 1 (intra-area); Level 2 (inter area); or Level 1-2 (both). Level 2 routers are inter area routers that can only form relationships with other Level 2 routers. Routing information is exchanged between Level 1 routers and other Level 1 routers, and Level 2 routers only exchange information with other Level 2 routers. Level 1-2 routers exchange information with both levels and are used to connect the inter area routers with the intra area routers. 


Q317. Which two statements about packet fragmentation on an IPv6 network are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The fragment header is 64 bits long. 

B. The identification field is 32 bits long. 

C. The fragment header is 32 bits long. 

D. The identification field is 64 bits long. 

E. The MTU must be a minimum of 1280 bytes. 

F. The fragment header is 48 bits long. 

Answer: A,B 


The fragment header is shown below, being 64 bits total with a 32 bit identification field: 


Q318. A network engineer wants to add a new switch to an existing switch stack. Which configuration must be added to the new switch before it can be added to the switch stack? 

A. No configuration must be added. 

B. stack ID 

C. IP address 

D. VLAN information 

E. VTP information 


Q319. Which two statements about the ipv6 ospf authentication command are true? (Choose two.) 

A. The command is required if you implement the IPsec AH header. 

B. The command configures an SPI. 

C. The command is required if you implement the IPsec TLV. 

D. The command can be used in conjunction with the SPI authentication algorithm. 

E. The command must be configured under the OSPFv3 process. 

Answer: A,B 


OSPFv3 requires the use of IPsec to enable authentication. Crypto images are required to use authentication, because only crypto images include the IPsec API needed for use with OSPFv3. In OSPFv3, authentication fields have been removed from OSPFv3 packet headers. When OSPFv3 runs on IPv6, OSPFv3 requires the IPv6 authentication header (AH) or IPv6 ESP header to ensure integrity, authentication, and confidentiality of routing exchanges. IPv6 AH and ESP extension headers can be used to provide authentication and confidentiality to OSPFv3. To use the IPsec AH, you must enable the ipv6 ospf authentication command. To use the IPsec ESP header, you must enable the ipv6 ospf encryption command. The ESP header may be applied alone or in combination with the AH, and when ESP is used, both encryption and authentication are provided. Security services can be provided between a pair of communicating hosts, between a pair of communicating security gateways, or between a security gateway and a host. To configure IPsec, you configure a security policy, which is a combination of the security policy index (SPI) and the key (the key is used to create and validate the hash value). IPsec for OSPFv3 can be configured on an interface or on an OSPFv3 area. For higher security, you should configure a different policy on each interface configured with IPsec. If you configure IPsec for an OSPFv3 area, the policy is applied to all of the interfaces in that area, except for the interfaces that have IPsec configured directly. Once IPsec is configured for OSPFv3, IPsec is invisible to you. 


Q320. Which switching technology can be used to solve reliability problems in a switched network? 

A. fragment-free mode 

B. cut-through mode 

C. check mode 

D. store-and-forward mode 



Characteristics of Store-and-Forward Ethernet Switching 

This section provides an overview of the functions and features of store-and-forward Ethernet switches. 

Error Checking 

Figure 1 shows a store-and-forward switch receiving an Ethernet frame in its entirety. At the end of that frame, the switch will compare the last field of the datagram against its own frame-check-sequence (FCS) calculations, to help ensure that the packet is free of physical and data-link errors. The switch then performs the forwarding process. Whereas a store-and-forward switch solves reliability issues by dropping invalid packets, cut-through devices forward them because they do not get a chance to evaluate the FCS before transmitting the packet. 

Figure 1. Ethernet Frame Entering a Store-and-Forward Bridge or Switch (from Left to Right)