Pass4sure ccna routing and switching 200 125 Questions are updated and all ccna 200 125 torrent answers are verified by experts. Once you have completely prepared with our ccna routing and switching 200 125 official cert guide library exam prep kits you will be ready for the real ccna 200 125 book exam without a problem. We have Up to the minute Cisco ccna 200 125 study guide dumps study guide. PASSED ccna 200 125 syllabus First attempt! Here What I Did.
Q81. - (Topic 8)
How does NAT overloading provide one-to-many address transalation?
A. it uses a pool of addresses.
B. it converts IPv4 addresses to unused IPv6 addresses.
C. it assigns a unique TCP/UDP port to each session.
D. it uses virtual MAC address and virtual IP addresses.
Q82. CORRECT TEXT - (Topic 7)
CCNA.com has a small network that is using EIGRP as its IGP. All routers should be running an EIGRP AS number of 12. Router MGT is also running static routing to the ISP.
CCNA.com has recently added the ENG router. Currently, the ENG router does not have connectivity to the ISP router. All over interconnectivity and Internet access for the existing locations of the company are working properly.
The task is to identify the fault(s) and correct the router configuration(s) to provide full connectivity between the routers.
Access to the router CLI can be gained by clicking on the appropriate host.
All passwords on all routers are cisco.
IP addresses are listed in the chart below.
Fa0/0 – 192.168.77.33
S1/0 – 18.104.22.168
S0/0 – 192.168.27.9
S0/1 – 192.168.50.21
Fa0/0 – 192.168.77.34
Fa1/0 – 192.168.12.17
Fa0/1 – 192.168.12.1
Fa0/0 – 192.168.12.33
Fa0/1 – 192.168.12.49
S0/0 – 192.168.27.10
Fa0/0 – 192.168.12.65
Fa0/1 – 192.168.12.81
S0/1 – 192.168.50.22
On the MGT Router: Config t
Router eigrp 12
Q83. - (Topic 3)
Refer to the exhibit.
What can be determined about the router from the console output?
A. No configuration file was found in NVRAM.
B. No configuration file was found in flash.
C. No configuration file was found in the PCMCIA card.
D. Configuration file is normal and will load in 15 seconds.
When no startup configuration file is found in NVRAM, the System Configuration Dialog will appear to ask if we want to enter the initial configuration dialog or not.
Q84. - (Topic 8)
Which option describes how a switch in rapid PVST+ mode responds to a topology change?
A. It immediately deletes dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.
B. It sets a timer to delete all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.
C. It sets a timer to delete dynamic MAC addresses that were learned by all ports on the switch.
D. It immediately deletes all MAC addresses that were learned dynamically by ports in the same STP instance.
Rapid PVST+This spanning-tree mode is the same as PVST+ except that is uses a rapid convergence based on the IEEE 802.1w standard. To provide rapid convergence, the rapid PVST+ immediately deletes dynamically learned MAC address entries on a per-port basis upon receiving a topology change. By contrast, PVST+ uses a short aging time for dynamically learned MAC address entries.
The rapid PVST+ uses the same configuration as PVST+ (except where noted), and the switch needs only minimal extra configuration. The benefit of rapid PVST+ is that you can migrate a large PVST+ install base to rapid PVST+ without having to learn the complexities of the MSTP configuration and without having to reprovision your network. In rapid-PVST+ mode, each VLAN runs its own spanning-tree instance up to the maximum supported.
Q85. - (Topic 5)
In GLBP, which router will respond to client ARP requests?
A. The active virtual gateway will reply with one of four possible virtual MAC addresses.
B. All GLBP member routers will reply in round-robin fashion.
C. The active virtual gateway will reply with its own hardware MAC address.
D. The GLBP member routers will reply with one of four possible burned in hardware addresses.
One disadvantage of HSRP and VRRP is that only one router is in use, other routers must wait for the primary to fail because they can be used. However, Gateway Load Balancing Protocol (GLBP) can use of up to four routers simultaneously. In GLBP, there is still only one virtual IP address but each router has a different virtual MAC address. First a GLBP group must elect an Active Virtual Gateway (AVG). The AVG is responsible for replying ARP requests from hosts/clients. It replies with different virtual MAC addresses that correspond to different routers (known as Active Virtual Forwarders – AVFs) so that clients can send traffic to different routers in that GLBP group (load sharing).
Q86. - (Topic 5)
Refer to the exhibit.
A network administrator is adding two new hosts to SwitchA. Which three values could be used for the configuration of these hosts? (Choose three.)
A. host A IP address: 192.168.1.79
B. host A IP address: 192.168.1.64
C. host A default gateway: 192.168.1.78
D. host B IP address: 192.168.1.128
E. host B default gateway: 192.168.1.129
F. host B IP address: 192.168.1.190
It’s a “router-on-a-stick” configuration. Which means each host in the VLAN must corresponds with the VLAN configured on the sub-interfaces.
VLAN 10 is configured on fa0/0.10 and VLAN 20 on fa0/0.20. So each hosts in VLAN 10 must use fa0/0.10 IP address as their default gateway, each hosts must also be in the same subnet as fa0/0.10 IP – same with hosts in VLAN 20.
So find out the usable IP addresses on each sub-interfaces – for 192.168.1.78 /27: 192.168.1.65 – .94 and for 192.168.1.130 /26: 192.168.1.128 – .190.
Host A (using port 6 – VLAN 10) must use IP 192.168.1.79, default gateway 192.168.1.78. Host B (using port 9 – VLAN 20) must use IP 192.168.1.190, default gateway
Q87. - (Topic 5)
Refer to the exhibit.
In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from router A?
A. 172.16.0.0 /16
B. 172.16.0.0 /20
C. 172.16.0.0 /24
D. 22.214.171.124 /16
E. 126.96.36.199 /17
F. 188.8.131.52 /16
Router A receives 3 subnets: 172.16.64.0/18, 172.16.32.0/24 and 172.16.128.0/18.
All these 3 subnets have the same form of 172.16.x.x so our summarized subnet must be also in that form -> Only A, B or .
The smallest subnet mask of these 3 subnets is /18 so our summarized subnet must also have its subnet mask equal or smaller than /18.
-> Only answer A has these 2 conditions ->.
Q88. - (Topic 7)
An administrator is trying to ping and telnet from SwitchC to RouterC with the results shown below.
Click the console connected to RouterC and issue the appropriate commands to answer the questions.
What would be the effect of issuing the command ip access-group 114 in to the fa0/0 interface?
A. Attempts to telnet to the router would fail.
B. It would allow all traffic from the 10.4.4.0 network.
C. IP traffic would be passed through the interface but TCP and UDP traffic would not.
D. Routing protocol updates for the 10.4.4.0 network would not be accepted from the fa0/0 interface.
From the output of access-list 114: access-list 114 permit ip 10.4.4.0 0.0.0.255 any we can easily understand that this access list allows all traffic (ip) from 10.4.4.0/24 network
Q89. - (Topic 3)
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
The “show version” command can be used to show the last method to powercycle (reset) a router.
Q90. - (Topic 7)
A network administrator is troubleshooting the OSPF configuration of routers R1 and R2. The routers cannot establish an adjacency relationship on their common Ethernet link.
The graphic shows the output of the show ip ospf interface e0 command for routers R1 and R2. Based on the information in the graphic, what is the cause of this problem?
A. The OSPF area is not configured properly.
B. The priority on R1 should be set higher.
C. The cost on R1 should be set higher.
D. The hello and dead timers are not configured properly.
E. A backup designated router needs to be added to the network.
F. The OSPF process ID numbers must match.
In OSPF, the hello and dead intervals must match and here we can see the hello interval is set to 5 on R1 and 10 on R2. The dead interval is also set to 20 on R1 but it is 40 on R2.